Comment by exelius
6 years ago
I wouldn’t say it’s particularly exaggerated; the “gay voice” is basically male pitch ranges with stereotypically feminine prosody and/or alliteration (I don’t say this as a mockery at all; there’s a documentary on Netflix that goes into the origins of this).
Though I do agree that gender norms are largely cultural — but it doesn’t change the fact that a Spanish man sounds “gay” to most Americans.
>> Though I do agree that gender norms are largely cultural — but it doesn’t change the fact that a Spanish man sounds “gay” to most Americans.
In that case, talking of a certain vocal style as being masculine or feminine, without a cultural qualifier, is meaningless. You should clarify that "this is how men speak in the US" or some such.
I don't know if I'd take a Netflix documentary as evidence that a stereotype is accurate.
There’s ample SLP research and documentation on all of this and I think you’re battling a straw man.
Edit: also your edit is just plain offensive. You have no idea what you’re talking about.
I deleted my edit not because I agree that it is offensive but because it goes into personal detail that I find unnecessary.
Also, I discern in your comment the start of a certain aggression in such conversations that I find, frankly, disturbing. There is absolutely nothing in my comment that is addressed to you, personally, yet yours is becoming personal. To protect myself from what this can lead to, I will not contribute to this discussion any longer.
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