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Comment by replwoacause

2 years ago

You should read up on this a little more, because the quality of your question is poor. It cost the Chouinard family roughly $17 million gift tax on the stock donated to the Holdfast Collective, so yeah, not exactly a wind fall.

They paid $17.5M in taxes, and donated $3B. That's a tax rate of 0.58%. Why is the tax rate so low? Because 98% of the donation went to a 501(c)(4). They managed to avoid tax on 98% of their donation by using a 501(c)(4).

Now for Mr. Seid, he donated 100% of the money to a 501(c)(4), so he managed to avoid tax on 100% of his donation.

NYT says that when Mr. Seid avoided 100% of the tax, he got "an enormous personal tax windfall".

NYT says that when the Chouinard family avoided 98% of the tax (for a total tax rate of 0.58%) they got "no tax benefit".

How is avoiding 100% of the tax a massive tax benefit but avoiding 98% of the tax no tax benefit? The benefit that the Chouinard family got was 98% the size of the benefit that Mr. Seid got. How is something that's 98% of something massive not still massive or at least very large? NYT says 98% of massive is equal to 0.

The Chouinard family paid $17.5M in taxes, but if they hadn't used a 501(c)(4) they would have paid $875M, meaning they saved $857.5M in taxes, which could be considered a windfall.

  • They donated the company, they didn't sell it. That means they would have never paid 875M in taxes since a donation means they don't receive the underlying investment gains as they would have if it were a sale. His family is left only with voting rights, not equity.

    • Similarly Mr. Seid donated his company, didn't sell it. NYT says he got "an enormous personal tax windfall". Yes, the charity he donated it to then sold it. Does a person's tax windfall status depend on what the charity does with the stock after donation?

      I guess you could say that NYT's position is:

      * If the charity sells the stock, we'll consider the donor to have gotten "an enormous personal tax windfall".

      * If the charity holds the stock and instead collects dividends from it for a long period, we'll consider the donor to have gotten "no tax benefit".

      I don't think that's a logical position though. For one thing, what if the Patagonia-owning charity decides tomorrow to sell the stock? Does NYT retroactively go back and say the Chouinard family actually did get a tax benefit?