Comment by curiousgal
2 years ago
I am curious, how do you explain the chasm in ADHD diagnosis between the US and Europe (or anywhere else really)? Surely if it's a purely neurological disorder, it should be somewhat "uniformly" detected across the globe, no?
Being purely neurological would strongly suggest uniform distribution of the disorder _itself_ — but absent a purely neurobiological _test_ for those symptoms, uniform distribution wouldn’t imply uniform detection.
“ADHD is primarily a neurological disorder” and “differences in ADHD diagnosis rates are primarily cultural” are not incompatible statements.
Europe maybe doesn't hire beautiful people to push drugs on prescribing doctors? Maybe Europe has better surveillance?