Comment by Aloisius
2 years ago
That's a classic etymological fallacy.
Antisemitism is a word that was coined in the 19th century specifically as anti-Jew.
The fact that Semite today can now refer to non-Jews doesn't mean Antisemitism refers to non-Jews as well.
I understand that and that is why I said "ironically" and "it can" while technically not "antisemitism" as most people define it. It can be viewed as valid use of languages, because well for a fact jews are not the only semetic people.
But anyway that wasn't my actual point anyway and you picked this over the main point. It is still valid, and you are free to pick a name specifically for it. Antiarab, antipalestanian or whatever you want.