Comment by dotancohen
2 years ago
> I define Palestine borders same as UN resolution from 1947.
The Arabs refused that definition and started a war in an attempt to conquer more land - so complaining that the borders changed from these borders is disingenuous. The Arabs' specific intent was to change those borders.
> I believe that the need for a truce vote would be less pressing if Israel reduced civilian and child casualties.
I believe that the need for a truce vote would be less pressing if Hamas did not use children as human shields. If you really want to protect civilians, especially children, then pressure should be on Hamas to release hostages in exchange for a truce, instead of forcing one on Israel.
They did not complain the borders had changed - they gave you a definition that they are using. It sounds like there is a contradictory definition you would like them to use and you are being disingenuous in simply complaining about the one they use.
The 1947 UN resolution did not define borders for Palestine. The UN Partition plan defined borders for "A Jewish State" and "An Arab State". Palestine was the name for the geographic area, like "Rocky Mountains", it was not the name of a political entity at the time. Even Arab bodies that used the term, such as the All Palestine Governate, used the term as a geographic term.
This is a completely different argument than the one you used one comment above, where you accepted the statement that there were borders defined for Palestine in 1947 and said that the Arabs rejected that definition. Would you like to clarify exactly which facts you are going to be using?
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There was an ad hoc committee that changed the borders further, for example around Beersheba.
Though orthogonal to this discussion, I would like to know more. Do you have something I could read? I think that I am unaware of this committee or its results. Thank you.
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