Because the Ottoman empire was already long gone at the moment of the founding of Israel (and also Palestine had been a relatively small region within that empire, not a state on its own).
GP made it sound as if there had been an existing state in 1948.
(Not disputing however that the zionist project of establishing a state there and the entire conflict go back far longer than 1948, to a time where the Ottomans definitly were still there)
The state didn't magically disappear in 1920, it just went from being administered by the Ottoman sultan to being administered by the British (in Palestine, and other people in other places).
You could say that the Sanjak of Jerusalem, Sanjak of Balqa, and Sanjak of Acre together pretty much make up the bulk of the area that the British called Mandatory Palestine. But its borders don't match Mandatory Palestine borders, and there was no special association of those three Sanjaks anyway.
Before the 20th century, the Arabs did not use the term Palestine, and had no concept of the areas of modern Palestine as being united in any modern sense. The closest thing that the Arabs at the time would group them would be as Greater Syria or AlShaam (or Ashshaam the way the locals say it), which includes Syria, Lebanon, and most of Jordan - but does not include the Negev desert. The earliest use of the word Palestine by an Arab was 1911, in the founding of the Palestine Post newspaper. At the time the word was a geographic area. The earliest mention of a Palestinian as a demonym for a person (as opposed to a geographic area) was 1964.
Because the Ottoman empire was already long gone at the moment of the founding of Israel (and also Palestine had been a relatively small region within that empire, not a state on its own).
GP made it sound as if there had been an existing state in 1948.
(Not disputing however that the zionist project of establishing a state there and the entire conflict go back far longer than 1948, to a time where the Ottomans definitly were still there)
The state didn't magically disappear in 1920, it just went from being administered by the Ottoman sultan to being administered by the British (in Palestine, and other people in other places).
> The state didn't magically disappear in 1920, it just went from being administered by the Ottoman sultan to being administered by the British
There was not a Palestinian state in the Ottoman empire. The early 20th century Ottoman division of Sanjaks looked like this:
https://www.wikidata.org/wiki/Q3948374#/media/File:Ottoman_l...
You could say that the Sanjak of Jerusalem, Sanjak of Balqa, and Sanjak of Acre together pretty much make up the bulk of the area that the British called Mandatory Palestine. But its borders don't match Mandatory Palestine borders, and there was no special association of those three Sanjaks anyway.
Before the 20th century, the Arabs did not use the term Palestine, and had no concept of the areas of modern Palestine as being united in any modern sense. The closest thing that the Arabs at the time would group them would be as Greater Syria or AlShaam (or Ashshaam the way the locals say it), which includes Syria, Lebanon, and most of Jordan - but does not include the Negev desert. The earliest use of the word Palestine by an Arab was 1911, in the founding of the Palestine Post newspaper. At the time the word was a geographic area. The earliest mention of a Palestinian as a demonym for a person (as opposed to a geographic area) was 1964.
Certainty not magically, but it did disappear: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Partition_of_the_Ottoman_Empir...
Formally through the Treaty of Sèvres and Treaty of Lausanne: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Treaty_of_S%C3%A8vres
The thing coming closest to a successor state would be modern-day Turkey, I believe.
Creation of Mandatory Palestine (under British rule, but not considered a state) was a part of the partition.
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