Because the Ottoman empire was already long gone at the moment of the founding of Israel (and also Palestine had been a relatively small region within that empire, not a state on its own).
GP made it sound as if there had been an existing state in 1948.
(Not disputing however that the zionist project of establishing a state there and the entire conflict go back far longer than 1948, to a time where the Ottomans definitly were still there)
The state didn't magically disappear in 1920, it just went from being administered by the Ottoman sultan to being administered by the British (in Palestine, and other people in other places).
Because the Ottoman empire was already long gone at the moment of the founding of Israel (and also Palestine had been a relatively small region within that empire, not a state on its own).
GP made it sound as if there had been an existing state in 1948.
(Not disputing however that the zionist project of establishing a state there and the entire conflict go back far longer than 1948, to a time where the Ottomans definitly were still there)
The state didn't magically disappear in 1920, it just went from being administered by the Ottoman sultan to being administered by the British (in Palestine, and other people in other places).
Certainty not magically, but it did disappear: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Partition_of_the_Ottoman_Empir...
Formally through the Treaty of Sèvres and Treaty of Lausanne: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Treaty_of_S%C3%A8vres
The thing coming closest to a successor state would be modern-day Turkey, I believe.
Creation of Mandatory Palestine (under British rule, but not considered a state) was a part of the partition.