Comment by rglullis
1 year ago
> Why are they required to be exclusive?
They are not required to be exclusive, but it would require that we can establish cause and effect.
If you tell me that your "issue with Capitalism" is that "we have people driven by profit/greed and wealth is unevenly distributed", but a quick look through history tells you we can always find "people driven by personal gain and wealth inequality", then what does "Capitalism" has to do with it?
"A quick look through history" is what I'd expect from someone who skims over a book and completely misses the point because they think they know it all.
Indeed I gave you three constraints but you're only looking at one independently.
When else in history were markets global? Why am I arguing with someone who can't even read?
> When else in history were markets global?
Right, so the fundamental issue is that we are living in a globalized world, which reduces any room for nuance and imposes an uniform and homogenized culture, top-down policy-making, and a totalitarian approach by the ruling class.
Thing is, this would still be our reality regardless of the economic system. Globalism would be a problem even if the Soviet Union had won the cold war.
We would still be subjected to uniform culture, top-down policy-making and totalitarianism.
The people would still be acting by their own personal interests.
People would still favor short term benefits over long term prosperity.
So, again: what does Capitalism has to do with it?