Comment by thrance
5 months ago
No, in France it specifically refers to "Harmful speech targeted toward individuals or groups on the basis of intrisinc characteristics [to this group], that may threaten social peace." [1]
If your particular political ideology requires this sort of speech, you should probably do some introspection.
[1] https://www.un.org/fr/hate-speech/understanding-hate-speech/...
This is already a political position - you might consider something is harmful to a particular group, but I might view this as the opposite. I think it's very easy to see a practical example of this..
That's why we have a text of law and jurists that came up with more rigorous definitions. I basically gave you the shortest tldr of a tldr of the subject. I can only recommend you read up on it more, because this really isn't the censorship tool you make it up to be.
I see how this is used in practice. I don't know about France, but in Poland both sides use that label when convenient, and of course they refer to completely different things, yet always done by their political opponents.
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you argument is basically "everything is a political position"
which defeats your original argument because if everything is a political position practically it's no different to nothing being a political position and as such
and sure application of law in practice is never perfect
but that doesn't mean we should allow people to systematically harass others on the internet, or systematically spread misinformation which is intended to cause deformation of whole groups of people, or calls for violence against people or propaganda with the intend to create more violent racism, etc.
If you have the half of the country strongly disagreeing with you, then.. it is. There's no other criteria...
Of course I can only guess we also disagree on what "misinformation", "propaganda" and even "racism" are. So in practice, I can't agree with any of your conclusion.
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