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Comment by SiliconSplash

5 days ago

Well that isn't quite right. The original idiom came out of an earlier supreme court ruling that was partially overturned by later rulings on the matter:

> Ultimately, whether it is legal in the United States to falsely shout "fire" in a theater depends on the circumstances in which it is done and the consequences of doing it. The act of shouting "fire" when there are no reasonable grounds for believing one exists is not in itself a crime, and nor would it be rendered a crime merely by having been carried out inside a theatre, crowded or otherwise.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shouting_fire_in_a_crowded_the...

Incitement to violence is also permitted as long as it isn't immediate and/or likely. This is known as the Brandenburg Test:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Brandenburg_v._Ohio

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Imminent_lawless_action

Even with the partial overturn, it is perfectly clear there are limits to freedom of expression. The poster before you clearly mistakes "a high bar" to "no bar at all".

  • I was simply pointing out two common misconceptions.

    There are obviously some restrictions on speech in every nation. However in the US the restrictions on speech by the state are far fewer than pretty much anywhere else and are enshrined by law. This is in stark contrast to other other Western nations such as the UK where there are far, far more restrictions on speech.

    • > I was simply pointing out two common misconceptions.

      With regard to falsely shouting fire, there are no common misconceptions. The common understanding of the saying is identical with the understanding in the judgment, and that part of the judgment remains good law.

      However, there is a modern meme that strives to obscure this reality by pointing out that the judgment reached conclusions that modern people generally disapprove of. This has no relevance to the issue.

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