It can only be "de facto" illegal if legal action was brought against some entity and succeeded, otherwise it'd be "de facto" nothing. GP also asked for an example case. TBH though I'm not how legal action would succeed without an accompanying law.
Any source at all here for your claim would be nice.
It can only be "de facto" illegal if legal action was brought against some entity and succeeded, otherwise it'd be "de facto" nothing. GP also asked for an example case. TBH though I'm not how legal action would succeed without an accompanying law.
Any source at all here for your claim would be nice.