Comment by munchler
17 hours ago
This seems to assume that a 1:1 mapping between words exists, but I don't think that's true for languages in general. Compound words, for example, won't map cleanly that way. Not to mention deeper semantic differences between languages due to differences in culture.
Correct
Mapping words 1:1 is not going to lead you anywhere (especially for a text that has stood undecoded for so long time)
It kiiiinda works for very close languages (think Dutch<>German or French<>Spanish) and even then.