Comment by ralfj

I brought up Curry-Howard to explain why I am using an SO post about "affine logic" to make an argument about the definition of "affine language". Both are defined the same way: no (universal) contraction. That claim is obviously correct, so you are going to have to be a more more concrete about which claim you disagree with.

(The other part you said about contraction and affine logics has already been successfully rebutted in some other replies so I won't repeat their points.)