← Back to context

Comment by prerok

3 days ago

Well, true, we cannot be 100% certain, but if he published the proof to n=4, we can say it's most likely he did not find the general proof.

why does that make it more likely?

  • Because if he had the general proof he wouldn't need to go out of his way to prove n=4, since it would be covered already by the general proof

    • It is simply an obvious fault line in the nature of the problem statement: you can crack the problem in 2 parts: the x^4+y^4=z^4 part, and the part that claims x^p+y^p=z^p with p a prime.

      Suppose Fermat solved the proof by using this natural fault line -its just how this cookie crumbles- solved the n=4 case, and then smashed his head a thousand times against the problem and finally found the prime n proof.

      He challenges the community, and since they don't take up the challenge, "encourages" them in a manner that may be described as trollish, by showing how to do the n=4 case. (knowing full well the prime power case proof looks totally different)

      3 replies →