Comment by pfdietz
1 month ago
The theorem is implied by an older result of Erdos, but is not a result of Erdos. Apparently this is because the connection is something called "Roger's Theorem" that was quite obscure.
https://terrytao.wordpress.com/2026/01/19/rogers-theorem-on-...
"This theorem is somewhat obscure: its only appearance in print is in pages 242-244 of this 1966 text of Halberstam and Roth, where the authors write in a footnote that the result is “unpublished; communicated to the authors by Professor Rogers”. I have only been able to find it cited in three places in the literature: in this 1996 paper of Lewis, in this 2007 paper of Filaseta, Ford, Konyagin, Pomerance, and Yu (where they credit Tenenbaum for bringing the reference to their attention), and is also briefly mentioned in this 2008 paper of Ford. As far as I can tell, the result is not available online, which could explain why it is rarely cited (and also not known to AI tools). This became relevant recently with regards to Erdös problem 281, posed by Erdös and Graham in 1980, which was solved recently by Neel Somani through an AI query by an elegant ergodic theory argument. However, shortly after this solution was located, it was discovered by KoishiChan that Rogers’ theorem reduced this problem immediately to a very old result of Davenport and Erdös from 1936. Apparently, Rogers’ theorem was so obscure that even Erdös was unaware of it when posing the problem!"
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