Object-level rule: “Stealing is illegal.”
Meta rule: “Laws vary by jurisdiction.”
If the meta claim is itself a law, what jurisdiction has the law containg the meta law? Who enforces it?
Object: "This sentence is grammatically correct."
Meta: "English grammar can change over time."
What grammar textbook has the rule of the meta claim above? Where can you apply that rule in a sentence?
Object: "X is morally wrong."
Meta: "There are no objective moral truths."
The meta claim is a statement about moral systems. It is not a moral prescription like "thou shalt not kill".
If you say "this stop sign is made of metal", you are making a meta claim. If you say "stop" you are giving a directive. It does not follow that if you can obey a directive, you can obey the composition of the directive.
All to say that a meta-claim of morals is not itself a moral claim.
When "meta" claims have implications within the system they are making assertions about, they collapse into that system. The claim that there are no objective moral claims is objective and has moral implications. Therefore it fails as a meta-claim and is rather part of the moral system.
The powerful want us to think that there are no objective moral claims because what that means, in practice, is do what thou wilt shall be the whole of the law. And, when two wills come into conflict, the stronger simply wins. This is why this self-contradictory position is pushed so hard in our culture.
Yes. A moral claim is a claim about the morality of our actions. Saying there are no objective moral claims is equivalent to saying "do what thou wilt shall be the whole of the law". Of course, when phrased in that manner, it is at least self-consistent.
Object-level rule: “Stealing is illegal.” Meta rule: “Laws vary by jurisdiction.”
If the meta claim is itself a law, what jurisdiction has the law containg the meta law? Who enforces it?
Object: "This sentence is grammatically correct." Meta: "English grammar can change over time."
What grammar textbook has the rule of the meta claim above? Where can you apply that rule in a sentence?
Object: "X is morally wrong." Meta: "There are no objective moral truths."
The meta claim is a statement about moral systems. It is not a moral prescription like "thou shalt not kill".
If you say "this stop sign is made of metal", you are making a meta claim. If you say "stop" you are giving a directive. It does not follow that if you can obey a directive, you can obey the composition of the directive.
All to say that a meta-claim of morals is not itself a moral claim.
When "meta" claims have implications within the system they are making assertions about, they collapse into that system. The claim that there are no objective moral claims is objective and has moral implications. Therefore it fails as a meta-claim and is rather part of the moral system.
The powerful want us to think that there are no objective moral claims because what that means, in practice, is do what thou wilt shall be the whole of the law. And, when two wills come into conflict, the stronger simply wins. This is why this self-contradictory position is pushed so hard in our culture.
Perhaps we are employing a different definition of 'moral claim'?
I take it that a moral claim tells you that something is good/bad, just/unjust, permissible/impermissible, or what should/shouldn't do, etc.
Yes. A moral claim is a claim about the morality of our actions. Saying there are no objective moral claims is equivalent to saying "do what thou wilt shall be the whole of the law". Of course, when phrased in that manner, it is at least self-consistent.