Comment by tsimionescu
1 day ago
I forgot to respond to this:
> And it seems that way. Say that you ignore taylor series formulation, skip it completely, and define the polar form to be r(10)^ix = cos(x)+isin(x), where r is radius and x is angle. JUST BECAUSE YOU CAN.
The thing is, you can't do this. Your numbers will not work out correctly. For example, (e^(pi*i))^i = 1/e^pi is a direct consequence of how exponentiation works and the definition of i. If you define 10^(xi) = cos x + i sin x, you will get:
(e^(pi\*i))^i =
= (10^(log_10 e \* pi \* i))^i
= (cos (log_10 e \* pi) + i sin (log_10 e \* pi)) ^ i
= 10^(log_10 $exp)i
= cos $exp + i sin $exp
I very much doubt that sin(cos (log_10 e * pi) + i sin (log_10 e * pi)) is 0, so this number can't possibly be equal to the real number 1/e^pi. So, with your definition, the property (a^x)^y = a^(x*y) doesn't hold for all a, x, y. So, your definition doesn't represent the exponential function at all.
> a direct consequence of how exponentiation works and the definition of i
I dunno if Im just not coming across clearly or my thinking is too abstract, but when you say
"how exponentiation works"
you are referring to how exponentiation works for real exponents
You would have to prove that it works the same way for i exponents before you can go further.