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Comment by ksd482

13 hours ago

> It is fraud.

I think we are talking semantics here.

While fraud does require intention to deceive, I get the sentiment that hallucinated citations shouldn't be dismissed as simply carelessness. It should be something stronger than that: gross negligence or something MUCH stronger! There should absolutely be repercussions for this.

But let's not call it fraud. That word is reserved for something specific.

EDIT: someone else said "reckless disregard" equals intent or something to that effect. So I looked it up.

It appears so that is the case. "Reckless Disregard Equals Intent" in legal language.

But I am not sure if this particular clause should apply here. Perhaps it depends on what kind of research is being published? For e.g., if it is related to medical science and has a real consequence on people's health, we can then apply this?

I do believe this policy is appropriate to deal with the reckless disregard of posting hallucinated references.

It's a conscious decision to not take the time to check your AI output, and instead waste a whole bunch of other people's time letting them essentially do that for you in duplicate.

Feels like that should disqualify you from participation for a bit. Intent or no intent.

  • 100% agreed.

    Doing your job poorly means giving more work to others and, consequently, stealing their time, their most precious asset.

    Many here don't agree with this ban because they work in IT, where this immoral and antisocial behavior is normalized.

  • > Feels like that should disqualify you from participation for a bit. Intent or no intent.

    Exactly! For a bit!

    Yet this is not for a bit! This is a lifetime disqualification, and that's been my entire grip the whole time! Is nobody reading this?

    "The penalty is a 1-year ban from arXiv followed by the requirement that subsequent arXiv submissions must first be accepted at a reputable peer-reviewed venue."

    • Mhm. Okay, honestly, I maybe don't have enough data to judge how much impact that requirement has.

      I also haven't seen anything on how this works with multiple authors, which could go anywhere from draconian to weakening the entire thing.

The intent to deceive is there. The deception is lying when you submit it that it is a scholarly piece of work in which amongst many other things you know the citations are accurate. This false representation was knowingly and intentionally made at the time of submission.

The citation being incorrect is merely the proof of deception not the (relevant) deception itself.

Fraud is the correct description provided (and this is practically a guarantee) you intended to benefit from the submission of the paper (e.g. by bolstering your resume).

  • If I violate the letter of the ToS when clicking submit you can correctly argue that I have technically committed fraud! Yet that is almost never what anyone actually means when having discussions like this one.

    Fraud in a scientific context generally refers to fabricated research results. At least personally I agree with GP that hallucinated citations are generally something akin to laziness thus not fraud but rather some sort of professional negligence.

    • Fraud in the scientific world has generally taken the form of fabricated results, but I don't agree that the word has transitioned away from the common and legal meaning of deception in order to get a benefit.

      Even if it had though, I'd be perfectly comfortable calling this fraud in this discussion based on the common meaning of the word. Just because we're talking about a scientific context does not mean we need to use the scientific-jargon versions of words - we're not in a scientific context ourselves.

      ---

      And I'd disagree that this is just about the "letter of the ToS". While that is perhaps a necessary component in order to prove the deception, this is really about the cultural expectations of the community that merely happened to have been encoded in the ToS. The fraud would still occur without the ToS, it would merely be next to impossible to show you didn't simply misunderstand the cultural norms and what your actions would lead others to believe.

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I think (though might well be misunderstanding) that reckless disregard is taken to be an intentional choice but that it does not imply that the outcome itself was intentional. The difference between intentionally doing something that you know for a fact has a high risk of failure but you can't necessarily predict the outcome versus intentionally seeking a particular legally disallowed outcome.

But what LPisGood was saying is that reckless disregard (as opposed to explicit intent) is sufficient to meet the legal bar for fraud.