Comment by tenacious_tuna

What's "correct" in this context? From the State's perspective it _is_ harmony, regardless of the restriction on personal freedom.

A western-context example of the same phenomenon might be the American notion of freedom. Americans often frame freedom as an absence of government restriction, but that leaves you open to exploitation (or restriction) from private entities. The same definitional dissonance exists, but it depends on which line of the emotional divide you're sitting on.

How do you handle translating that into a language used largely in a context that doesn't have that history?