Comment by jasperry

By the traditional translation of if/then sentences to classical logic, it is. If you want to go further down the rabbit hole, several things are debatable here: When people use if/then sentences, do they really mean material implication, where (A -> B) is equivalent to (~A OR B)? Also, people often use the word "or" in a sense that's closer to exclusive OR, as opposed to the inclusive OR that the logical operator indicates. Overall, can the meaning of a sentence with imperative intent be fully captured by a proposition that is just meant to indicate a state of affairs?