Comment by alistairSH
4 hours ago
Yeah, OECD is saying the mean disposable income is the US is almost the same as median household income.
Either some of the numbers are wrong, or your (OECD’s) use of mean is misleading… the mean of Bezos’ and my disposable incomes is a very large and mostly useless figure.
Mean personal disposable income being comparable to median household income isn't too surprising and doesn't necessarily indicate any error. Mean is much higher than median, individual is much lower than household, disposable is much lower than total. You are comparing numbers that are different in all three axes (in ways which do not point in the same direction), so really any relationship between them would be plausible without detailed knowledge of the exact distribution of all the relevant components.
They're completely different metrics. If you want to compare median income:
UK - $49,500 (https://www.ons.gov.uk/peoplepopulationandcommunity/personal...)
US - $83,750 (https://fred.stlouisfed.org/series/MEHOINUSA672N)
I'm struggling to understand what you're trying to prove other than that you don't understand statistics.