> Drawing on extensive prior research by mathematicians over the past decades, it
> [Claude] has increased this bound [for the fraction of zeros of the Riemann zeta
> function that satisfy the Riemann hypothesis] from 41.6% to 67.2%. Claude also
> produced a formally verifiable proof of its result.
How is a formally verifiable proof not a proof? You're making literally no sense.
What? The article states:
How is a formally verifiable proof not a proof? You're making literally no sense.