← Back to context Comment by jstanley 5 days ago If the keys are selected uniformly at random why are 0 and 1 more likely than other values? 2 comments jstanley Reply ZiiS 5 days ago Because I don't want my test keys to be random/none reproducable, instead I will just used fixed seeds to see if any timing etc leeks. jstanley 5 days ago So what has that got to do with rdrand? I literally don't understand what you would get from preventing 0 as output?
ZiiS 5 days ago Because I don't want my test keys to be random/none reproducable, instead I will just used fixed seeds to see if any timing etc leeks. jstanley 5 days ago So what has that got to do with rdrand? I literally don't understand what you would get from preventing 0 as output?
jstanley 5 days ago So what has that got to do with rdrand? I literally don't understand what you would get from preventing 0 as output?
Because I don't want my test keys to be random/none reproducable, instead I will just used fixed seeds to see if any timing etc leeks.
So what has that got to do with rdrand? I literally don't understand what you would get from preventing 0 as output?