Comment by DannyBee

"Why do we have to attribute intentionally to a human. "

Because you are charging the human with the crime and therefore have to prove the elements of the crime with regard to the human.

The rest of what you talk about are basically principal/agent distinctions, etc.

If I program a car to recognize people who look like my ex-wife and drive them off a cliff or whatever, that is my intent, and I have still committed murder, even though i used an agent/car to do it. Agents acting on my behalf that do things are able to get me charged with crimes, but I still have to have the intent to do the act that is illegal.

I phrase it this way because minimum required intent is usually for the act, not the result. So I don't have to intend to kill someone, only intend to drive them off cliffs.

In this case, if i intend to hack someone and use an agent to do so, that would be criminal under the CFAA. You are simply trying to cover the case where that isn't the intent, but the result, and they "should have known" that would result. As mentioned, this kind of "should have known" is generally a civil law approach, not a criminal law one.

The closest you come within criminal law to what you want is probably the crime of conspiracy. It to still requires agreement to commit an illegal act between multiple parties, and perform some step in furthering it. In the canonical law school example: If i help plan a bank robbery, stay home because i'm the money laundering dude, and the robbery goes awry and they kill someone, i can still be charged with conspiracy-murder

"The law is clear on establishing strict liability for the owners of wild animals; if you own a tiger and it kills someone you can’t hide behind “I didn’t intend” the harm the nature of the tiger is known and you are responsible for it’s actions."

Again, you are confusing civil and criminal liability. If my tiger kills someone, yes, i would be strictly liable just about everywhere civilly. Not criminally. Criminal would require something more most of the time. Murder/manslaughter statutes are also really weird and so not a great example, because there are murder/manslaughter statutes for roughly everything that can ever possible cause death. But not really for other things.

So in your tiger example, recklesness (which is not strict liability) would get you to felony involuntary manslaughter in most states, and something less might get you to misdemeanor manslaughter. Both are incredibly rare. Where i live (Georgia), the last well known case of felony involuntary manslaughter was about 40 years ago when a 4 year old was killed by 3 super-aggressive pitbulls the owner knew were highly dangerous and had been repeatedly warned by the county about their behavior.

So not even just "knew", but had demonstrable examples of them biting/etc other folks and being cited for it.

Circling back to non-murder, if it did not cause death, like my tiger assaulting someone, it would be nothing (criminally) without intent or at least gross recklessness, in almost all cases. It's hard to generalize like this because these are state specific crimes, and i can't pretend to be familiar with all states, but i am licensed in three very different places (California, DC, Maryland) and the result would be similar in each.

I just don't want to give you the "it depends" answer lawyers are famous for, i'd rather try to over-generalize a bit to make it more useful, hopefully.

Obviously, if i deliberately used my tiger as a weapon, it would be aggravated assault/etc (this is well settled because of how commonly people use animals as weapons, unfortunately)