Comment by gadders
1 hour ago
India was already conquered by the Moguls by the time the British got there, so I guess they had to consolidate their own colonisation before looking to extend.
I mean maybe you could say the industrial revolution could only have happened in Britain, but that's awfully hard to prove. It also wasn't a pre-cursor to a lot of the empire.
> India was already conquered by the Moguls by the time the British got there
Like 200 years before that. India produced a quarter of the world's manufacturing output in 1750. [1] It was already prosperous when the British got there. That's why the British were there.
You're really going to tell me that if the British hadn't conquered them, they wouldn't have rapidly adopted the industrial revolution? Why not? Japan did.
> It also wasn't a pre-cursor to a lot of the empire
I don't know what that means. Britain's navy and army, as well as its advanced capital markets, were key to conquering so much of the world. Industrial capacity is fundamental to a strong navy and army in the modern world. Advanced capital markets generally develop to support industrial growth.
1. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mughal_Empire#Economy
China, India, and most of the Middle East had effectively been conquered by descendants of horseback quasi-nomadic peoples at the start of the British colonial era. The Qing Dynasty (Manchurians), the Mughals (descendants of Tamerlane and the Mongol aristocracy of Genghis Khan), and the Ottoman Turks (former vassals to the Mongolian Ilkhanate and also Tamerlane). It can be argued these Central Asian warlord societies were not conducive to technological development.
> It can be argued these Central Asian warlord societies were not conducive to technological development
Why not? Their technology is part of what helped them conquer so much in the first place. What would make them so hostile to technology?
All 3 societies were among the leading powers of the world up until the 1800s, in addition to being productive and prosperous.