Comment by mikeash
7 years ago
If two wines were chemically identical but someone claimed that one of them tasted “warmer” than the other, would you just go with that?
7 years ago
If two wines were chemically identical but someone claimed that one of them tasted “warmer” than the other, would you just go with that?
Sure. I don't need to invalidate someone else's experience.
What if they were wasting a bunch of money on it and trying to convince others to do the same?
How is it a waste if it's one person spending their money on something they enjoy? You're not compelled to also do that.
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The is not the only scenario. How about you made some analysis of two wines and they seem to be same, yet someone can _reliably_ tell them apart?
As long as the test is done with proper blinding, then that means the analysis is insufficiently comprehensive and there really is a difference.
Is that the case here?
Yes, that's what I and the person you responded to are arguing. See this comment [1] and the video I linked for more.
[1] https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=19320093 [2] https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=RlCG2fK-abo
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