Comment by mikeash
7 years ago
As long as the test is done with proper blinding, then that means the analysis is insufficiently comprehensive and there really is a difference.
Is that the case here?
7 years ago
As long as the test is done with proper blinding, then that means the analysis is insufficiently comprehensive and there really is a difference.
Is that the case here?
Yes, that's what I and the person you responded to are arguing. See this comment [1] and the video I linked for more.
[1] https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=19320093 [2] https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=RlCG2fK-abo
Really? I understood your comment as explicitly disavowing blind tests, and I see no mention of them in the comment you linked to.
I’m not really inclined to watch a 25 minute video on this. What’s the timestamp of the blind test?