Comment by Sniffnoy

Question: Are these correlations typically transitive? That is to say, does it typically happen that in addition to everything having nonzero correlation with everything else, it additionally happens that the sign of the correlation between A and C is equal to the product of the signs of the correlations between A and B and between B and C?

Thorndike's dictum would suggest that this is so, at least in that particular domain. What about more generally?