Comment by GrantMoyer

I agree it's not hacking, but the Computer Fraud and Abuse act seems to have a pretty broad definition of computer fraud and abuse. In particular, the technique seems like it might (emphasis mine) "knowingly and with intent to defraud, accesses a protected computer without authorization, or exceeds authorized access, and by means of such conduct furthers the intended fraud and obtains anything of value …". Would the other person have a reasonable belief that they didn't authorize access to information which their OS attempts to prevent access to?

I'm not a lawyer, so my question is genuine.