Comment by rayiner

6 days ago

No, the "and" functions the same way as in programming: "(born or naturalized in the U.S.) && (subject to the jurisdiction thereof)" requires both things to be true.

Not according to the supreme court any time this has come up.

  • That’s how the Supreme Court always interprets “and” in a list of conditions.

    • No it's not. And, as a prime example, this case which the supreme court does not and did not take that view. It's not even something the dissent argued. This is your own personal interpretation.

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