Yes, I have to say, I'm a bit surprised (and disappointed) by how many people in this thread are struggling with their reading comprehension of the story.
It's a fun story, but that's all. There's absolutely no legal case here.
Sure, but it seems like people are struggling to follow the basic facts:
1) The author received communication 30 years ago that he had 15,625 stock options available to exercise;
2) However, according to some paperwork he had, he believes now that he actually had 25,000 stock options vested
The problem is, if we accept this as true (and it sounds like the paperwork had conflicting info about the vesting, and that the part that suggested the 25,000 vested might have been an error, so this part is not at all clear), all it means is that the author owned some additional stock options 30 years ago which he failed to exercise. These options have long since expired and so would be worthless today.
The author is claiming that the communication he received was misrepresentation, but if so the statue of limitations has long since expired.
I think a lot of the commenters are conflating stock options with actual shares themselves (which surprises me given the nature of this place, but regardless). If we were talking about 15,625 vs 25,000 shares then it's a different story since shares don't expire and don't need to be exercised. He would still have a claim to the extra shares--the claim would be that he had owned them this whole time. But options are a different story because of expiration.
Yes, I have to say, I'm a bit surprised (and disappointed) by how many people in this thread are struggling with their reading comprehension of the story.
It's a fun story, but that's all. There's absolutely no legal case here.
Reading comprehension != being a lawyer
Sure, but it seems like people are struggling to follow the basic facts:
1) The author received communication 30 years ago that he had 15,625 stock options available to exercise;
2) However, according to some paperwork he had, he believes now that he actually had 25,000 stock options vested
The problem is, if we accept this as true (and it sounds like the paperwork had conflicting info about the vesting, and that the part that suggested the 25,000 vested might have been an error, so this part is not at all clear), all it means is that the author owned some additional stock options 30 years ago which he failed to exercise. These options have long since expired and so would be worthless today.
The author is claiming that the communication he received was misrepresentation, but if so the statue of limitations has long since expired.
I think a lot of the commenters are conflating stock options with actual shares themselves (which surprises me given the nature of this place, but regardless). If we were talking about 15,625 vs 25,000 shares then it's a different story since shares don't expire and don't need to be exercised. He would still have a claim to the extra shares--the claim would be that he had owned them this whole time. But options are a different story because of expiration.
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Not only would I buy it, I'd win it too. Statute of limitations is irrelevant here. Property rights are eternal.